500 Loan

I have a mortgage, what happens in foreclosure. I started looking at the loan documents and original articles of the Constitution of Texas mortgages, trust deeds, Leins, ect. In the constitution it is stated that both parties (lender and borrower) should be the fair market value of the homestead. I found the statement of fair and I was the only party to sign. Would it make my loan null?

Howdy. I live in Texas and had a bit of real estate transactions. It seems to me that you do not have much of a case. If you signed the form JVM is all that is necessary, because the lender usually fills the whole, you submit it for approval. signature of the lender is an implied agreement, since they provided valuable data on the form. Remember, many things in the Texas Constitution were amended by legal priority over the years, although those cases were included in the Constitution.

Even if you have a leg to stand on without actual signature on the other hand, I would bet that the judge would side with the lender, in your case, simply because of this old standard MumboJumbo law that says that is what is commonly accepted that proper legal practice. "

You can also check with your lienholder of origin to see if they have comments on the lender that holds your second. Sometimes these people home equity tend to be somewhat dubious in their way of doing things. If you call on him he can come off foreclosure or give you some alternatives to the loss of your home.

Good luck, whatever you decide to do so.

FiveStarAuthor@aol.com

(I edited several books on real estate, so I do not know something done about it, if I am not an expert.)

it depends on whether they agree with him or disagree with it, but not not make your loan null